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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 01:31

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What is better, 4 more years of Trump with the media trying to hurt him, or 8 years of DeSantis with the media licking booty, or 4 to 8 years of RFK with the media hating on him all the time? (Biden is not an option, he can't win)

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why do ugly men flirt with girls that are really hot?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What makes outside showers appealing? Why are they not commonly seen?

You'll usually find your answer there.